Previous year questions (PYQ) paper in the form of mock tests is designed for you which will enhance your accuracy, speed, knowledge, and many more.
Quiz-summary
0 of 60 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
Information
You must specify a text. |
|
You must specify a text. |
Information
Read all the instructions carefully before applying for the mock test.
- Give your best and take it seriously as you give your real exam.
- Use a desktop/laptop for comfort and full widescreen, if possible.
- Make sure to sit peacefully in a place to give the mock test with a pen and a paper to work out.
- Ensure that you are registered on the website to start the mock test. If you donโt have an account, register now.
- There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
- Correct and incorrect answers will be displayed at the end of the mock test.
- In order to get the score of the mock test immediately, you must enter your name and universityโs name on the displayed form at the time of finishing the quiz.
- An email will be sent with his/her mock test result to his/her email id.
- Users can apply multiple times for the mock test after the gap of at least five minutes.
- If any users are reapplying the mock test from the same IP address then the result will automatically be saved in the next 24 hours.
- The total duration of the paper is 75 minutes and maximum marks: 100
- This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice types of questions.
- Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3), and (4). You have to select one response from each question.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- PYQ- Paper 1- 2016- August- UGC NET Exam 0%
-
Thank you “” for participating in the free mock test of ‘JMC STUDY HUB’. Study materials like Quick Revision notes are also available for UGC-NETย Paper-II in the discipline of journalism and mass communication.
Dear “” If you have liked our mock test on jmcstudyhub.com then suggest others too for participating in the free mock test.
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
2 pointsIn a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme of Chapterisation?
Correct
The research study has been presented with the chapterization scheme. Each part of the study has a significant role in the completion of study.
Incorrect
The research study has been presented with the chapterization scheme. Each part of the study has a significant role in the completion of study.
-
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research?
Correct
The key features of qualitative research are that: It is not based upon numerical measurements and does not use numbers and statistical methods as key research indicators and tools. Instead, it uses words as the unit of analysis and often takes an in-depth, holistic or rounded approach to events/issues/case studies.
Incorrect
The key features of qualitative research are that: It is not based upon numerical measurements and does not use numbers and statistical methods as key research indicators and tools. Instead, it uses words as the unit of analysis and often takes an in-depth, holistic or rounded approach to events/issues/case studies.
-
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
2 pointsA detailed description of methodology of research is required in
Correct
A thesis or dissertation is a document submitted in support of candidature for an academic degree or professional qualification presenting the author’s research and findings. In some contexts, the word “thesis” or a cognate is used for part of a bachelor’s or master’s course, while “dissertation” is normally applied to a doctorate, while in other contexts, the reverse is true.
Incorrect
A thesis or dissertation is a document submitted in support of candidature for an academic degree or professional qualification presenting the author’s research and findings. In some contexts, the word “thesis” or a cognate is used for part of a bachelor’s or master’s course, while “dissertation” is normally applied to a doctorate, while in other contexts, the reverse is true.
-
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
2 pointsResearch ethics ย has a direct connection more often with which stages of research?
Correct
Research ethics specifically deals with the analysis of ethical issues that are raised when people are involved as participants in research.
Incorrect
Research ethics specifically deals with the analysis of ethical issues that are raised when people are involved as participants in research.
-
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
2 pointsRead the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar to those observable in advanced-technology industries and firms. For instance, company longevity does not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the advanced-technology company for example, one new-product innovation โ which is expected to generate financial returns to the firm โ is insufficient for the company to be successful.
Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the independent production company of this case, each new film โ which is expected to generate financial returns to the principals โ is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent new films involving the firmโs participants will be produced by a different independent company.
As another instance, peopleโs learning is expected to have different contributors and beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In the advanced-technology company, for example, each new product innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such participants, hence, benefit from their increased experience on the next project. By contrast with the independent production company, each new film provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and acquire this experience also, but this same company has little or no expectation of retaining such participants, and hence, benefitting from their increased experience in the next project.
Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally, on film projects, budgets are very tight, and schedules are very demanding. People are hired largely based on their experience and are expected to perform well immediately when called to do so. There is negligible slack time or margin for learning through trial and error, but experienced people learn exactly through trial and error. Because experience is valued so highly and film-production houses have such short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most people. Further, the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in this industry. Some skills and techniques can be learned and refined through formal education (e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but the majority come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an important role. True, the film business focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the industry as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.
Answer the following questions:
Q. What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
2 pointsWhat will be sufficient for an independent production company to be successful?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
2 pointsWhat does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its participants?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
2 pointsWhat is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its participants?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
2 pointsWhy do film production houses value experience highly?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
2 pointsAccording to the author, what has been the focus of film business?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
2 pointsInternal and external factors that affect message reception by the students in the classroom are referred to as
Correct
Communication noise refers to influences on effective communication that influence the interpretation of conversations. Forms of communication noise include psychological noise, physical noise, physiological and semantic noise.
Incorrect
Communication noise refers to influences on effective communication that influence the interpretation of conversations. Forms of communication noise include psychological noise, physical noise, physiological and semantic noise.
-
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
2 pointsA teacher in a classroom has immediate control over
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
2 pointsWhat do communicated words carry in a classroom situation?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
2 pointsAs a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
2 pointsFigure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the following:
Correct
Nonverbal communication refers to gestures, facial expressions, tone of voice, eye contact (or lack thereof), body language, posture, and other ways people can communicate without using language.
Incorrect
Nonverbal communication refers to gestures, facial expressions, tone of voice, eye contact (or lack thereof), body language, posture, and other ways people can communicate without using language.
-
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the basic factors of effective listening?
Correct
Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening?
Incorrect
-
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
2 pointsIn a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code of BIOLOGICALS will be
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
2 pointsIn the series 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, โฆโฆ. the next term is
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
2 pointsAt present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10 years will be
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
2 pointsIn the series AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
2 pointsC and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of D. B is related to C as
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
2 pointsAnil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was found to be 80. After playing four more matches, the mean of the runs of all the matches was found to be 70. The total runs made in the last four matches is
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
2 pointsIf two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both be false although they may both be true, then their relationship is called
Correct
Subcontrary definition, one of two propositions that can both be true but cannot both be false.
Incorrect
Subcontrary definition, one of two propositions that can both be true but cannot both be false.
-
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
2 pointsWhich one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive type of argument?
Correct
A deductive argument is a type of logical argument that begins with a factual premise such that the conclusion you want to reach must be true. It uses deductive reasoning to arrive at a conclusion.
Incorrect
A deductive argument is a type of logical argument that begins with a factual premise such that the conclusion you want to reach must be true. It uses deductive reasoning to arrive at a conclusion.
-
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
2 pointsSelect the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive argument:
Correct
A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless to be false. Otherwise, a deductive argument is said to be invalid.
Incorrect
A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless to be false. Otherwise, a deductive argument is said to be invalid.
-
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
2 pointsGiven below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or together); which conclusions are validly drawn? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Premises:
(i) All bats are mammals.
(ii) Birds are not bats.
Conclusions:
(a) Birds are not mammals.
(b) Bats are not birds.
(c) All mammals are bats.
(d) Some mammals are bats.
Codes:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
2 pointsWhen a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean what is meant by the definiens it is called
Correct
A stipulative definition is a kind of definition in which a new word or term is coined in order to signify a meaning or object for which no word in the language has previously been given. For example, the word selfie has been invented in order to signify a person who loves to take picture of himself or herself.
Incorrect
A stipulative definition is a kind of definition in which a new word or term is coined in order to signify a meaning or object for which no word in the language has previously been given. For example, the word selfie has been invented in order to signify a person who loves to take picture of himself or herself.
-
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
2 pointsSelect the code which is not correct:
An analogical argument is strengthened by
Correct
An analogical argument is an argument in which one concludes that two things are alike in a certain respect because they are alike in other respects. examples : There might be life on Europa because it has an atmosphere that contains oxygen just like the Earth.
Incorrect
An analogical argument is an argument in which one concludes that two things are alike in a certain respect because they are alike in other respects. examples : There might be life on Europa because it has an atmosphere that contains oxygen just like the Earth.
-
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
2 pointsConsider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of students in each faculty at University and the number of foreign students in the Science faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the science faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow (Questions 29 โ 31):
I: Students Faculty wise
Name of Faculty % of Students Computing 22 Business 14 Science 23 Engineering 9 Arts 21 Medicine 5 Law 6 II : Foreign Students in Science Faculty
Foreign Students Number of Science Students American 79 Australian 4 African 2 Chinese 6 European 21 Q. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of foreign students?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
2 pointsApproximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
2 pointsIn case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is their percentage in the medicine faculty?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
2 pointsA college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and class MCA-II. The proportion of female students and the proportion of vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the table.
Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information.
Proportion of females and proportion of vegetarians in each class
Class Female (F) Vegetarian (V) MCA-I 0.40 MCA-II 0.45 0.50 MCA-III 0.55 Total 0.525 0.53 For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.
Q. What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
2 pointsWhat is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
2 pointsHow many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class MCA-II?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding the features of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true
I. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the applications based on them.
II. ICT supports the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content from the place where it belongs physically.
III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the expenditure for them to be maximized.
Codes:
Correct
Information and communications technology (ICT) is an umbrella term that includes any communication device or application encompassing mobile phones, computer and network hardware, software, the Internet, satellite systems, and so on.
Incorrect
Information and communications technology (ICT) is an umbrella term that includes any communication device or application encompassing mobile phones, computer and network hardware, software, the Internet, satellite systems, and so on.
-
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
2 pointsIf one GigaByte is equal to 230ย Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to _____ bits of data storage.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
2 pointsThe software used to navigate through the web is known as
Correct
A web browser is a software program that allows a user to locate, access, and display web pages.
Incorrect
A web browser is a software program that allows a user to locate, access, and display web pages.
-
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
2 pointsWith regard to e-mail, what does Bcc: mean?
Correct
Cc means carbon copy and Bcc means blind carbon copy. For emailing, you use Cc when you want to copy others publicly, and Bcc when you want to do it privately. Any recipients on the Bcc line of an email are not visible to others on the email.
Incorrect
Cc means carbon copy and Bcc means blind carbon copy. For emailing, you use Cc when you want to copy others publicly, and Bcc when you want to do it privately. Any recipients on the Bcc line of an email are not visible to others on the email.
-
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
2 pointsRandom Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a ______ memory.
Correct
Volatile memory is a type of storage whose contents are erased when the system’s power is turned off or interrupted. For example, RAM is volatile. When you are working on a document, it is kept in RAM, and if the computer loses power, your work will be lost.
Incorrect
Volatile memory is a type of storage whose contents are erased when the system’s power is turned off or interrupted. For example, RAM is volatile. When you are working on a document, it is kept in RAM, and if the computer loses power, your work will be lost.
-
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
2 pointsIn Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as servers do not maintain any information about past client requests. HTTP is an acronym for
Correct
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-layer protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML. It was designed for communication between web browsers and web servers, but it can also be used for other purposes.
Incorrect
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-layer protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML. It was designed for communication between web browsers and web servers, but it can also be used for other purposes.
-
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
2 pointsThe arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to
Correct
Arsenic contamination of groundwater is a form of groundwater pollution which is often due to naturally occurring high concentrations of arsenic in deeper levels of groundwater. Arsenic contamination of ground water is found in many countries throughout the world, including the US.
Incorrect
Arsenic contamination of groundwater is a form of groundwater pollution which is often due to naturally occurring high concentrations of arsenic in deeper levels of groundwater. Arsenic contamination of ground water is found in many countries throughout the world, including the US.
-
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
2 pointsAmong the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as climate?
Correct
Soot, particularly diesel exhaust pollution, accounts for over one quarter of the total hazardous pollution in the air. Among these diesel emission components, particulate matter has been a serious concern for human health due to its direct and broad impact on the respiratory organs.
Incorrect
Soot, particularly diesel exhaust pollution, accounts for over one quarter of the total hazardous pollution in the air. Among these diesel emission components, particulate matter has been a serious concern for human health due to its direct and broad impact on the respiratory organs.
-
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.
Reason (R): Our understanding of how the environment works and how different human choices affect the environment is inadequate.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Environmental sustainability is the rates of renewable resource harvest, pollution creation, and non-renewable resource depletion that can be continued indefinitely. If they cannot be continued indefinitely then they are not sustainable.
Incorrect
Environmental sustainability is the rates of renewable resource harvest, pollution creation, and non-renewable resource depletion that can be continued indefinitely. If they cannot be continued indefinitely then they are not sustainable.
-
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
2 pointsThe percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is
Correct
Solar generation (including distributed) is projected to climb from 11 percent of total U.S. renewable generation in 2017 to 48 percent by 2050, making it the fastest-growing electricity source. Globally, renewables made up 24 percent of electricity generation in 2016, much of it from hydropower (16 percent).
Incorrect
Solar generation (including distributed) is projected to climb from 11 percent of total U.S. renewable generation in 2017 to 48 percent by 2050, making it the fastest-growing electricity source. Globally, renewables made up 24 percent of electricity generation in 2016, much of it from hydropower (16 percent).
-
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
2 pointsAs part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of
Correct
India’s third NDC commitment is to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tons of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. However, the progress has been limited and the country has more work to do on this target.
Incorrect
India’s third NDC commitment is to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tons of carbon dioxide equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. However, the progress has been limited and the country has more work to do on this target.
-
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following is a meteorological hazard?
Correct
Meteorological disasters are caused by extreme weather, e.g. rain, drought, snow, extreme heat or cold, ice, or wind. Examples of weather disasters include blizzard, droughts, hailstorms, heat waves, hurricanes, floods (caused by rain), and tornadoes. A blizzard is a severe snowstorm characterized by strong sustained winds of at least 56 km/h (35 mph) and lasting for a prolonged period of timeโtypically three hours or more.
Incorrect
Meteorological disasters are caused by extreme weather, e.g. rain, drought, snow, extreme heat or cold, ice, or wind. Examples of weather disasters include blizzard, droughts, hailstorms, heat waves, hurricanes, floods (caused by rain), and tornadoes. A blizzard is a severe snowstorm characterized by strong sustained winds of at least 56 km/h (35 mph) and lasting for a prolonged period of timeโtypically three hours or more.
-
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?
Correct
The Indian Institute of Science is a public, deemed, research university for higher education and research in science, engineering, design, and management. It is located in Bangalore city, in the Indian state of Karnataka.
Incorrect
The Indian Institute of Science is a public, deemed, research university for higher education and research in science, engineering, design, and management. It is located in Bangalore city, in the Indian state of Karnataka.
-
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?
(a) It supplements formal education.
(b) It reduces the cost of education.
(c) It replaces the formal education.
(d) It enhances access to education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Distance Education Council which was the erstwhile regulator of Distance Education programmes has been dissolved and all regulatory functions are being undertaken by the UGC.
Incorrect
The Distance Education Council which was the erstwhile regulator of Distance Education programmes has been dissolved and all regulatory functions are being undertaken by the UGC.
-
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are statutory bodies?
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
Statutory body or authority means a non-constitutional body which is set up by a parliament. Statutory bodies are authorized to pass the law and take the decision on the behalf of state or country. Statutory body has official permission for Legislation i.e process of enacting laws.
Incorrect
Statutory body or authority means a non-constitutional body which is set up by a parliament. Statutory bodies are authorized to pass the law and take the decision on the behalf of state or country. Statutory body has official permission for Legislation i.e process of enacting laws.
-
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?
(a) It has the same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during an emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India. It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India. It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
-
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State?
(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d) He has diplomatic powers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Incorrect
The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
-
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed?
(a) Dismissal of an employee
(b) Supersession of a municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The principle of natural justice or fairness is the sine qua non of a democratic government. Principles of natural justice includes: (a) Rule against bias: Bias may include: (i) Personal Bias; (ii) Pecuniary Bias ; (iii) Subject-matter Bias; (iv) Departmental Bias; (v) Preconceived notion bias.
Incorrect
The principle of natural justice or fairness is the sine qua non of a democratic government. Principles of natural justice includes: (a) Rule against bias: Bias may include: (i) Personal Bias; (ii) Pecuniary Bias ; (iii) Subject-matter Bias; (iv) Departmental Bias; (v) Preconceived notion bias.
-
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of teaching?
Select the correct alternative from the codes:
(i) Teaching is the same as training.
(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we teach.
(iii) Teaching is related to learning.
(iv) Teaching is a โtaskโ word while learning is an โachievementโ word.
(v) Teaching means giving information.
(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.
Codes:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following factors affect teaching?
Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) Teacherโs internal locus of control.
(ii) Learner-motivation.
(iii) Teacherโs biographical data.
(iv) Teacherโs self efficacy.
(v) Learnerโs interest in co-curricular activities.
(vi) Teacherโs skill in managing and monitoring.
(vii) Teacherโs knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.
Codes:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
2 pointsWhich combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise learning?
Correct
Our team of educators are learning specialists who use a range of brain-compatible strategies and resources to maximise learning outcomes for all students. Optimise Learning can assist you, as you strive to help the young people in your life, reach their unique potential.
Incorrect
Our team of educators are learning specialists who use a range of brain-compatible strategies and resources to maximise learning outcomes for all students. Optimise Learning can assist you, as you strive to help the young people in your life, reach their unique potential.
-
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): Teaching aids have to be considered as effective supplements to instruction.
Reason (R): They keep the students in good humour.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
2 pointsThe purpose of formative evaluation is to
Correct
Formative evaluation is typically conducted during the development or improvement of a program or course. Summative evaluation involves making judgments about the efficacy of a program or course at its conclusion.
Incorrect
Formative evaluation is typically conducted during the development or improvement of a program or course. Summative evaluation involves making judgments about the efficacy of a program or course at its conclusion.
-
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence the effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure positive results?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
2 pointsFor advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
2 pointsThere are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research and Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match the two sets and choose your answer from the codes given below:
Set โ I (Research method) Set โ II (Procedural Characteristics) a. Experimental method i. Interventions to ameliorate a given situation b. Expost facto method ii. Explaining patterns of behaviour in terms of meanings and their representations which people share. c. Descriptive method iii. Manipulating an independent variable in controlled conditions and measuring its effect on dependent variable. d. Symbolic interactionism iv. Depending on primary and secondary sources of data. e. Action research v. Obtaining information concerning the current status of phenomena. vi. Observing the effect on dependent variable and making probes into factors/variables which explain it. vii. Exegetic analysis. Codes:
Codes:
aย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย bย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย cย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย dย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย e
(A)ย ย ย ย ย ย iย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย iiiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ivย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย vย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย vii
(B)ย ย ย ย ย ย iiiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ivย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย vย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย viย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย vii
(C)ย ย ย ย ย ย iย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย iiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย iiiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ivย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย v
(D)ย ย ย ย ย ย iiiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย viย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย vย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย iiย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย i
Correct
Incorrect