Previous year questions of the NTA UGC NET Exam are designed in the form of ‘Indian Political System- Chapter-wise Quiz Khelo’ which will enhance accuracy, speed, knowledge, and many more.
Quiz Khelo- Indian Polity (UGC NET Paper 1)
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Question 1 of 72
1. Question
2 pointsWho among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?
Correct
Tushar Mehta is the Solicitor General of India which is subordinate to the attorney general of India.
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 72
2. Question
2 pointsParliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 72
3. Question
2 pointsWhich one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 4 of 72
4. Question
2 pointsMatch List – I (Institutions) with List – II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below:
List – I (Institutions) List – II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget
(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 72
5. Question
2 pointsFoundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 6 of 72
6. Question
2 pointsElectoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 72
7. Question
2 pointsThe right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:
Correct
Article 19(1)(a) says that all citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Incorrect
Article 19(1)(a) says that all citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
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Question 8 of 72
8. Question
2 pointsElection of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by:
Correct
State election commission carries out activities related to preparation of wards / election division as per local bodies rules, decision of boundaries and distribution of seats along with preparation of voters list for the local bodies organizations like Gram Panchayat, Taluka and District Panchayat / Municipality.
Incorrect
State election commission carries out activities related to preparation of wards / election division as per local bodies rules, decision of boundaries and distribution of seats along with preparation of voters list for the local bodies organizations like Gram Panchayat, Taluka and District Panchayat / Municipality.
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Question 9 of 72
9. Question
2 pointsWhich part of the Constitution of India is known as “Code of Administrators”?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 72
10. Question
2 pointsWhich article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
Correct
371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland.
Incorrect
371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland.
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Question 11 of 72
11. Question
2 pointsWhich one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
Correct
Judicial activism, an approach to the exercise of judicial review, or a description of a particular judicial decision, in which a judge is generally considered more willing to decide constitutional issues and to invalidate legislative or executive actions.
Social auditing is a process for evaluating, reporting on, and improving an organization’s performance and behavior, and for measuring its effects on society.
The Citizen’s Charter was a British political initiative launched by the then Prime Minister, John Major (wiki) which aim is to improve public services in the country like ‘making administration accountable and citizen friendly and ‘ensuring transparency and the right to information’. (reference:- wikipedia)
Incorrect
Judicial activism, an approach to the exercise of judicial review, or a description of a particular judicial decision, in which a judge is generally considered more willing to decide constitutional issues and to invalidate legislative or executive actions.
Social auditing is a process for evaluating, reporting on, and improving an organization’s performance and behavior, and for measuring its effects on society.
The Citizen’s Charter was a British political initiative launched by the then Prime Minister, John Major (wiki) which aim is to improve public services in the country like ‘making administration accountable and citizen friendly and ‘ensuring transparency and the right to information’. (reference:- wikipedia)
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Question 12 of 72
12. Question
2 pointsAccording to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in
Correct
Article 120- Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue. (rajbhasha.nic.in)
Incorrect
Article 120- Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue. (rajbhasha.nic.in)
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Question 13 of 72
13. Question
2 pointsThe Parliament in India is composed of
Correct
Legislature of the Union, which is called Parliament, consists of the President and two Houses, known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). Each House has to meet within six months of its previous sitting. (knowindia.gov.in)
Incorrect
Legislature of the Union, which is called Parliament, consists of the President and two Houses, known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). Each House has to meet within six months of its previous sitting. (knowindia.gov.in)
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Question 14 of 72
14. Question
2 pointsThe enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
Correct
Distance learning helps the students with flexible studying hours which can help you to continue the job of your interest without any hindrance and can contribute towards the nation’s overall development.(thehighereducationreview)
Incorrect
Distance learning helps the students with flexible studying hours which can help you to continue the job of your interest without any hindrance and can contribute towards the nation’s overall development.(thehighereducationreview)
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Question 15 of 72
15. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 72
16. Question
2 pointsThe Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
Correct
The basic objective of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Public Authorities, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in real sense. (apgvbank.in)
Incorrect
The basic objective of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Public Authorities, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in real sense. (apgvbank.in)
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Question 17 of 72
17. Question
2 pointsMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 72
18. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements :
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
Correct
In India, the principles of natural justice are firmly grounded in Article 14 & 21 of the Constitution. With the introduction of concept of substantive and procedural due process in Article 21, all that fairness which is included in the principles of natural justice can be read into Art. 21.(legalservicesindia)
Incorrect
In India, the principles of natural justice are firmly grounded in Article 14 & 21 of the Constitution. With the introduction of concept of substantive and procedural due process in Article 21, all that fairness which is included in the principles of natural justice can be read into Art. 21.(legalservicesindia)
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Question 19 of 72
19. Question
2 pointsThe President of India is
Correct
The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. (wikipedia)
Incorrect
The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. (wikipedia)
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Question 20 of 72
20. Question
2 pointsWho among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?
Correct
. The governor appoints the chief minister of a state. He or she also appoints the Advocate General and the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. Apart from this, State Election Commissioner is also appointed by the Governor (though removed by the President).(wikipedia)
Incorrect
. The governor appoints the chief minister of a state. He or she also appoints the Advocate General and the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. Apart from this, State Election Commissioner is also appointed by the Governor (though removed by the President).(wikipedia)
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Question 21 of 72
21. Question
2 pointsOne-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
Correct
Two years, term can be extended. The Finance Secretary is the administrative head of the Ministry of Finance. This post is held by senior IAS officer of the rank of Secretary to Government of India. The current Finance Secretary is Ajay Bhushan Pandey.
Incorrect
Two years, term can be extended. The Finance Secretary is the administrative head of the Ministry of Finance. This post is held by senior IAS officer of the rank of Secretary to Government of India. The current Finance Secretary is Ajay Bhushan Pandey.
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Question 22 of 72
22. Question
2 pointsMatch the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Commissions and Committees)
List – II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005 (b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962 (c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966 (d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Correct
- The first ARC was established on 5 January 1966. The Administrative Reforms Commission was initially chaired by Morarji Desai, and later on K. Hanumanthaiah became its chairman when Desai became the Deputy Prime Minister of India. (wikipedia)
Paul Henson Appleby was an important American theorist of public administration in democracies. Paul H. Appleby submitted two reports on Indian Administration. (wikipedia)
In 1962, Lal Bahadur Sastri appointed Santhanam to preside over the committee on anti-corruption. Because of its thorough investigative work and recommendations, the Committee earned a reputation as Santhanam’s Committee on Anti-Corruption. (wikipedia)
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31 August 2005, as a Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily for preparing a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administrative system.
Incorrect
- The first ARC was established on 5 January 1966. The Administrative Reforms Commission was initially chaired by Morarji Desai, and later on K. Hanumanthaiah became its chairman when Desai became the Deputy Prime Minister of India. (wikipedia)
Paul Henson Appleby was an important American theorist of public administration in democracies. Paul H. Appleby submitted two reports on Indian Administration. (wikipedia)
In 1962, Lal Bahadur Sastri appointed Santhanam to preside over the committee on anti-corruption. Because of its thorough investigative work and recommendations, the Committee earned a reputation as Santhanam’s Committee on Anti-Corruption. (wikipedia)
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31 August 2005, as a Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily for preparing a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administrative system.
-
Question 23 of 72
23. Question
2 pointsConstitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
Correct
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
Incorrect
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
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Question 24 of 72
24. Question
2 pointsThe members of Gram Sabha are
Correct
The gram panchayat is divided into wards and each ward is represented by a Ward Member or Commissioner, also referred to as a Panch or Panchayat Member, who is directly elected by the villagers. The panchayat is chaired by the president of the village, known as a Sarpanch.
Incorrect
The gram panchayat is divided into wards and each ward is represented by a Ward Member or Commissioner, also referred to as a Panch or Panchayat Member, who is directly elected by the villagers. The panchayat is chaired by the president of the village, known as a Sarpanch.
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Question 25 of 72
25. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
Correct
Right to constitutional remedies (Articles 32 to 35) empowers the citizens to move to a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.
Incorrect
Right to constitutional remedies (Articles 32 to 35) empowers the citizens to move to a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.
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Question 26 of 72
26. Question
2 pointsWho among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
Correct
District administration in India is a legacy of the British Raj. The position of District Collector was created by Warren Hastings in 1772. The main functions of the district collector were to supervise general administration, to collect land revenue and to maintain law and order in the district. He was the head of the revenue organization.
Incorrect
District administration in India is a legacy of the British Raj. The position of District Collector was created by Warren Hastings in 1772. The main functions of the district collector were to supervise general administration, to collect land revenue and to maintain law and order in the district. He was the head of the revenue organization.
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Question 27 of 72
27. Question
2 pointsThe Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
- Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
- To develop the scientific temper.
- Respect for the Government.
- To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
Correct
The Fundamental Duties’ are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Duties’ are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
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Question 28 of 72
28. Question
2 pointsThe President of India takes oath
Correct
Although the Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the president can exercise his powers directly or by subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive powers vested in the president are, in practice, exercised by the prime minister (a subordinate authority) with the help of the Council of Ministers.
Incorrect
Although the Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the president can exercise his powers directly or by subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all of the executive powers vested in the president are, in practice, exercised by the prime minister (a subordinate authority) with the help of the Council of Ministers.
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Question 29 of 72
29. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
- The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
- He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
- He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
- He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
Correct
The president appoints a person who is qualified to be a judge of Supreme Court, to the Attorney General of India.
- The 15th and current Attorney General is K.K Venugopal.
- Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country. He is responsible to assist the government legal matters.
- He has the right of audience in all the courts of the country.
- He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
- He has a fixed tenure.
- M C Setalvad was the first Attorney General of India.
Incorrect
The president appoints a person who is qualified to be a judge of Supreme Court, to the Attorney General of India.
- The 15th and current Attorney General is K.K Venugopal.
- Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country. He is responsible to assist the government legal matters.
- He has the right of audience in all the courts of the country.
- He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
- He has a fixed tenure.
- M C Setalvad was the first Attorney General of India.
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Question 30 of 72
30. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
- His Excellency
- Mahamahim
- Hon’ble
- Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
Correct
Rashtrapati Mahoday should be used in place of Mahamahim. His Excellency will be discontinued and the word Hon’ble will be used before the title of president or governor. The traditional Indian greetings of “Shri” and “Smt” should precede the name.
Incorrect
Rashtrapati Mahoday should be used in place of Mahamahim. His Excellency will be discontinued and the word Hon’ble will be used before the title of president or governor. The traditional Indian greetings of “Shri” and “Smt” should precede the name.
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Question 31 of 72
31. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
- State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
- Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
- Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
- Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of states.
- Salaries of the judges of the High Court, Supreme Court, IAS and IPS can be reduced.
- Under Article 360, the president can declare financial emergency.
Incorrect
Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of states.
- Salaries of the judges of the High Court, Supreme Court, IAS and IPS can be reduced.
- Under Article 360, the president can declare financial emergency.
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Question 32 of 72
32. Question
2 pointsMatch List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Correct
Mahatma Gandhi Employment Guarantee Act 2005, is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. This act was passed in September 2005.
The National Social Assistance Programme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Government of India that provides financial assistance to the elderly, widows and persons with disabilities in the form of social pensions.
Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana, previously Indira Awaas Yojana, is a social welfare flagship programme, created by the Indian Government, to provide housing for the rural poor in India. A similar scheme for urban poor was launched in 2015 as Housing for All by 2022.
The Mid-day Meal Scheme is a school meal programme of the Government of India designed to better the nutritional standing of school-age children nationwide.
Incorrect
Mahatma Gandhi Employment Guarantee Act 2005, is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’. This act was passed in September 2005.
The National Social Assistance Programme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Government of India that provides financial assistance to the elderly, widows and persons with disabilities in the form of social pensions.
Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana, previously Indira Awaas Yojana, is a social welfare flagship programme, created by the Indian Government, to provide housing for the rural poor in India. A similar scheme for urban poor was launched in 2015 as Housing for All by 2022.
The Mid-day Meal Scheme is a school meal programme of the Government of India designed to better the nutritional standing of school-age children nationwide.
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Question 33 of 72
33. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
As per the Constitution of India, judges of the Supreme Court retire at age of 65. Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde is the 47th Chief Justice of India.
Incorrect
As per the Constitution of India, judges of the Supreme Court retire at age of 65. Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde is the 47th Chief Justice of India.
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Question 34 of 72
34. Question
2 pointsIn the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
Correct
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections.
Incorrect
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections.
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Question 35 of 72
35. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
- The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
- It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
- It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
- It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
Correct
The National Advisory Council of India was an advisory body set up by the first United Progressive Alliance government to advise the Prime Minister of India.
Incorrect
The National Advisory Council of India was an advisory body set up by the first United Progressive Alliance government to advise the Prime Minister of India.
-
Question 36 of 72
36. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
- Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
- Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
- Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
Correct
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament in April1993. The Amendment provided a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India through insertion of Article 243 to Part IX of Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament in April1993. The Amendment provided a Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India through insertion of Article 243 to Part IX of Indian Constitution.
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Question 37 of 72
37. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
Correct
Meghalaya and Mizoram enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in their respective state assemblies. The regions of Meghalaya are represented in the Assembly, with 29 members elected from Khasi Hills, 7 from Jaintia Hills and 24 from Garo Hills. The Mizoram Legislative Assembly is the unicameral state legislature of Mizoram state in north-eastern India. The seat of the Legislative Assembly is at Aizawal, the capital of the state. The Legislative Assembly comprise 40 Members of Legislative Assembly directly elected from single-seat constituencies.
Incorrect
Meghalaya and Mizoram enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in their respective state assemblies. The regions of Meghalaya are represented in the Assembly, with 29 members elected from Khasi Hills, 7 from Jaintia Hills and 24 from Garo Hills. The Mizoram Legislative Assembly is the unicameral state legislature of Mizoram state in north-eastern India. The seat of the Legislative Assembly is at Aizawal, the capital of the state. The Legislative Assembly comprise 40 Members of Legislative Assembly directly elected from single-seat constituencies.
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Question 38 of 72
38. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
- Birth
- Descent
- Naturalisation
- Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
Correct
Following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship:
- Citizenship by Birth
- Citizen by Registration
- Citizen by Registration
- Citizen by Naturalisation
- Citizen by incorporation of Territory
- Amendment in the citizenship Act
Incorrect
Following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship:
- Citizenship by Birth
- Citizen by Registration
- Citizen by Registration
- Citizen by Naturalisation
- Citizen by incorporation of Territory
- Amendment in the citizenship Act
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Question 39 of 72
39. Question
2 pointsThe power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
Correct
Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first. In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It involves the following cases: Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.
Incorrect
Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first. In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It involves the following cases: Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.
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Question 40 of 72
40. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct?
- There are seven Union Territories in India.
- Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
- One Union Territory has a High Court.
- One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 72
41. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
- The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
- The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.
- The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000
- It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Central Information commission was established in 2005 by the Government of India under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). The Central Information Commission is plays an important role in maintaining transparency in the system of the governance which is essential in the democracy.
Incorrect
The Central Information commission was established in 2005 by the Government of India under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). The Central Information Commission is plays an important role in maintaining transparency in the system of the governance which is essential in the democracy.
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Question 42 of 72
42. Question
2 pointsWho among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?
Correct
The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission. The Deputy Chairman is the de-facto executive head of the Commission. After India achieved independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India, was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the Chairman.
Incorrect
The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission. The Deputy Chairman is the de-facto executive head of the Commission. After India achieved independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India, was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the Chairman.
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Question 43 of 72
43. Question
2 pointsEducation as a subject of legislation figures in the
Correct
Public order, police, public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries, betting and gambling are some of the subjects that come under the state. The Concurrent List includes subjects that give powers to both the Centre and state governments. By having education in the Concurrent list, the Centre can implement directly any policy decision in the States.
Incorrect
Public order, police, public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries, betting and gambling are some of the subjects that come under the state. The Concurrent List includes subjects that give powers to both the Centre and state governments. By having education in the Concurrent list, the Centre can implement directly any policy decision in the States.
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Question 44 of 72
44. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are Central Universities?
- Pondicherry University
- Vishwa Bharati
- H.N.B. Garhwal University
- Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University is a Central University located in Srinagar town in the Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand state in northern India.
Visva-Bharati University is a public central university and an Institution of National Importance located in Santiniketan, West Bengal, India.
Incorrect
Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University is a Central University located in Srinagar town in the Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand state in northern India.
Visva-Bharati University is a public central university and an Institution of National Importance located in Santiniketan, West Bengal, India.
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Question 45 of 72
45. Question
2 pointsConsider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
Correct
A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public interest in the Republic of India. The current Chairperson of Lokpal is Pinaki Chandra Ghose.
Incorrect
A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public interest in the Republic of India. The current Chairperson of Lokpal is Pinaki Chandra Ghose.
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Question 46 of 72
46. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the tools of good governance?
- Social Audit
- Separation of Powers
- Citizen’s Charter
- Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Good governance has 8 major characteristics. It is participatory, consensus oriented, accountable, transparent, responsive, effective and efficient, equitable and inclusive, and follows the rule of law.
Incorrect
Good governance has 8 major characteristics. It is participatory, consensus oriented, accountable, transparent, responsive, effective and efficient, equitable and inclusive, and follows the rule of law.
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Question 47 of 72
47. Question
2 pointsRight to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in
Correct
A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice JS Khehar, ruled on August 24, 2017, that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right for Indian citizens under the Constitution of India (mostly under Article 21 and additionally under Part III rights).
Incorrect
A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court headed by Chief Justice JS Khehar, ruled on August 24, 2017, that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right for Indian citizens under the Constitution of India (mostly under Article 21 and additionally under Part III rights).
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Question 48 of 72
48. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha?
- Summoning
2 Adjournment- sine die
- Prorogation
- Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Legislative power is constitutionally vested by the Parliament of India of which the president is the head, to facilitate the lawmaking process per the constitution (Article 78, Article 86, etc.). The president summons both the houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of the parliament and prorogues them.
Incorrect
Legislative power is constitutionally vested by the Parliament of India of which the president is the head, to facilitate the lawmaking process per the constitution (Article 78, Article 86, etc.). The president summons both the houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of the parliament and prorogues them.
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Question 49 of 72
49. Question
2 pointsThe interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
Correct
Legislative power is constitutionally vested by the Parliament of India of which the president is the head, to facilitate the lawmaking process per the constitution (Article 78, Article 86, etc.). The president summons both the houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of the parliament and prorogues them.
Incorrect
Legislative power is constitutionally vested by the Parliament of India of which the president is the head, to facilitate the lawmaking process per the constitution (Article 78, Article 86, etc.). The president summons both the houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) of the parliament and prorogues them.
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Question 50 of 72
50. Question
2 pointsThe session of the parliament is summoned by:
Correct
Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session.
Incorrect
Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session.
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Question 51 of 72
51. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, with the upper house being the Rajya Sabha.
Incorrect
The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, with the upper house being the Rajya Sabha.
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Question 52 of 72
52. Question
2 pointsPublic Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
Correct
Public order as an item figures in Article 19(2) of the Indian constitution. It states that the government has the right to impose restrictions on freedom of expression and speech to maintain public order.(
Incorrect
Public order as an item figures in Article 19(2) of the Indian constitution. It states that the government has the right to impose restrictions on freedom of expression and speech to maintain public order.(
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Question 53 of 72
53. Question
2 pointsThe term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
Correct
The Advocate General is the highest law officer in the state. He is responsible to assist the state government in all its legal matters. He defends and protects the interest of the state government. The office of the Advocate General in state corresponds to the office of Attorney General of India.
Incorrect
The Advocate General is the highest law officer in the state. He is responsible to assist the state government in all its legal matters. He defends and protects the interest of the state government. The office of the Advocate General in state corresponds to the office of Attorney General of India.
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Question 54 of 72
54. Question
2 pointsWhich among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 72
55. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Supreme court is called the guardian of the constitution because the supreme court is given the power to protect ,safeguard,and uphold the constitution and empower to declare a law null and void if it is found to be in consistant with the constitution.
Incorrect
Supreme court is called the guardian of the constitution because the supreme court is given the power to protect ,safeguard,and uphold the constitution and empower to declare a law null and void if it is found to be in consistant with the constitution.
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Question 56 of 72
56. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
Correct
The Fundamental Duties’ are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Duties’ are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
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Question 57 of 72
57. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
The NITI Aayog is National Institution for Transforming India. It is a policy think tank that was established to achieve sustainable development goals through cooperative federalism. Cooperative Federalism encourage healthy competition among states. NITI aayog was established in 2015 replacing Planning Commission.
Incorrect
The NITI Aayog is National Institution for Transforming India. It is a policy think tank that was established to achieve sustainable development goals through cooperative federalism. Cooperative Federalism encourage healthy competition among states. NITI aayog was established in 2015 replacing Planning Commission.
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Question 58 of 72
58. Question
2 pointsThe National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
Correct
National Judicial Appointments Commission was a proposed body which would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India.
Incorrect
National Judicial Appointments Commission was a proposed body which would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India.
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Question 59 of 72
59. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?
(a) It has the same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during an emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India. It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India. It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
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Question 60 of 72
60. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State?
(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d) He has diplomatic powers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
Incorrect
The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
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Question 61 of 72
61. Question
2 pointsIn which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed?
(a) Dismissal of an employee
(b) Supersession of a municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The principle of natural justice or fairness is the sine qua non of a democratic government. Principles of natural justice includes: (a) Rule against bias: Bias may include: (i) Personal Bias; (ii) Pecuniary Bias ; (iii) Subject-matter Bias; (iv) Departmental Bias; (v) Preconceived notion bias.
Incorrect
The principle of natural justice or fairness is the sine qua non of a democratic government. Principles of natural justice includes: (a) Rule against bias: Bias may include: (i) Personal Bias; (ii) Pecuniary Bias ; (iii) Subject-matter Bias; (iv) Departmental Bias; (v) Preconceived notion bias.
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Question 62 of 72
62. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
In the 28 member council, 5 are members of the lower house (Lok Sabha) and upper house (Rajya Sabha) of the Indian parliament. Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad is Chairman of the Council as of 2015.
Incorrect
In the 28 member council, 5 are members of the lower house (Lok Sabha) and upper house (Rajya Sabha) of the Indian parliament. Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad is Chairman of the Council as of 2015.
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Question 63 of 72
63. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
Article 356 state that the president can invoke president rule in a state on the report of the governor if the state machinery/legislature fails to abide by constitutional norms.
Incorrect
Article 356 state that the president can invoke president rule in a state on the report of the governor if the state machinery/legislature fails to abide by constitutional norms.
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Question 64 of 72
64. Question
2 pointsInstead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Correct
The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President with the consultation of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the State. The other judges are appointed by the will of President, Governor and the Chief Justice of High Court.
Incorrect
The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President with the consultation of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the State. The other judges are appointed by the will of President, Governor and the Chief Justice of High Court.
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Question 65 of 72
65. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’?
(a) Misuse of official position
(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms
(c) Non-action when action is required
(d) Harm to public good
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
Corruption is a form of dishonesty or criminal offense undertaken by a person or organization entrusted with a position of authority, to acquire illicit benefit or abuse power for one’s private gain.
Incorrect
Corruption is a form of dishonesty or criminal offense undertaken by a person or organization entrusted with a position of authority, to acquire illicit benefit or abuse power for one’s private gain.
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Question 66 of 72
66. Question
2 pointsWho among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?
Correct
As Governor holds office at the “pleasure of the President”, Governor can be removed by the President directly. Because of the lack of “impeachment” procedure of the Governor in the Constitution, removal of the Governor had been always contentious.
Incorrect
As Governor holds office at the “pleasure of the President”, Governor can be removed by the President directly. Because of the lack of “impeachment” procedure of the Governor in the Constitution, removal of the Governor had been always contentious.
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Question 67 of 72
67. Question
2 pointsAssertion (A): In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.
Reason (R): In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt by people for heating purposes or to keep themselves warm.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 68 of 72
68. Question
2 pointsLeader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:
(a) The central information Commissioner
(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) The Chairperson of National Commission for women
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under the Right to Information Act in 2005 plays an important role in maintaining transparency in the system of the governance which is essential in the democracy.
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. (wikipedia)
The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
Incorrect
The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under the Right to Information Act in 2005 plays an important role in maintaining transparency in the system of the governance which is essential in the democracy.
Central Vigilance Commission is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. (wikipedia)
The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
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Question 69 of 72
69. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?
(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
Gender budgeting means preparing budgets or analyzing them from a gender perspective. Also referred to as gender-sensitive budgeting, this practice does not entail dividing budgets for women.
Incorrect
Gender budgeting means preparing budgets or analyzing them from a gender perspective. Also referred to as gender-sensitive budgeting, this practice does not entail dividing budgets for women.
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Question 70 of 72
70. Question
3 pointsWhich of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 71 of 72
71. Question
2 pointsThe Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
Correct
Citizens’ Charters initiative is a response to the quest for solving the problems which a citizen encounters, day in and day out, while dealing with the organisations providing public services. The concept of Citizens’ Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its users.
Incorrect
Citizens’ Charters initiative is a response to the quest for solving the problems which a citizen encounters, day in and day out, while dealing with the organisations providing public services. The concept of Citizens’ Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its users.
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Question 72 of 72
72. Question
2 pointsThe Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
Correct
The electoral college consists of Elected members of both the houses of Parliament i.e Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Plus the Elected members of lower house of State assembly ( Vidhan Sabha). If the chief minister is not the member of Vidhan Sabha and has come through indirect route of Vidhan Parishad, then he stands ineligible to vote in the President elections. This is the case of Uttar Pradesh but not same for all the other states. If chief minister is part of Vidhan Sabha he can vote in Presidential elections.
Incorrect
The electoral college consists of Elected members of both the houses of Parliament i.e Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Plus the Elected members of lower house of State assembly ( Vidhan Sabha). If the chief minister is not the member of Vidhan Sabha and has come through indirect route of Vidhan Parishad, then he stands ineligible to vote in the President elections. This is the case of Uttar Pradesh but not same for all the other states. If chief minister is part of Vidhan Sabha he can vote in Presidential elections.